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Old Wed Nov 24, 2010, 09:28pm
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Adam Adam is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by dahoopref View Post
It wasn't a personal foul, it was an "intentional foul."

So are you saying that even though there is an "intentional foul" by definition as explained in this play, the offended team does NOT get the ball at the spot of the foul after the 2 FTs?
Sure they do, unless there is another foul that occurs after it. As bob points out, it is a personal foul; and personal fouls are penalized in the order of occurance.

Thought experiment: are there other situations where an intentional foul penalty wouldn't include a throwin for the offended team?
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