[Rich Ives]

Originally Posted by dash_riprock

I agree this is the way it should be called, but it is not the way the interp. is written.

For this rule, MLB defines intent (applicable to both offensive and defensive INT):

"If, however, such person kicks the ball or picks it up or pushes it, that is considered intentional interference regardless of such person's actual intent."

When the offensive player picks up the ball, he has, by definition, intentionally interfered.

Just a bad choice of words. I'm not going to lose sleep over it.

So why is the MLBUM play titled "Player in bullpen picks up a fair batted ball" requiring the umpire to judge intent if in fact picking up the ball is in and of itself defined as intentional?