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Old Mon Oct 11, 2010, 09:26pm
Robert Goodman Robert Goodman is offline
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Join Date: Feb 2007
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Quote:
Originally Posted by mbcrowder View Post
No, it doesn't. There are NO fouls for which Team B must do something to prove Team A fouled. Either they did or they didn't - Team B's degree of "jumpiness" and/or their steadfastness in not moving until the ball is snapped is completely irrelevant as to whether it's a foul or not. Further - what you are suggesting would mean that 2 completely identical movements by the RB would be a foul once, and not a foul later.
Yes, that's exactly what I'm suggesting. And I think there are other factors besides team B's rxn which could determine whether the same action by A1 simulates action at the snap in one case and not another.
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