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Originally Posted by johnnyg08
For the purpose of a the discussion, would you characterize the successful fielding of a ground ball by an infielder to be a play?
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No, obviously not.
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What about a soft ground ball to F6 who bobbles the ball with R1 stealing on the pitch and slides into 2B as B/R also touches and runs through 1B. F6, trying to be a hero, still makes an off balance throw to F3 and zings it into DBT. Now we have both R1 and BR having reached their advance base before the throw by F6. Now place the runners. I think we'd agree that we'd score R2 and put R1 on 3b because even though is was still the first play by an infielder, both the runner and b/r reached their advance base at the TOT.
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Yes - and I believe this ALSO applies to the OP and revised OP plays. All runners have reached their advance base at the TOT.
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I agree with others that the catch is not the first play. Do we agree on that or not?
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Not ... or at least not yet. That's the discussion at hand that I'm trying to be convinced of.
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Are you contending that a fly ball that is caught is a "play" and one that is fielded on the ground is not a "play?"
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I'm contending that that is how I've always ruled it and am asking to be convinced. (The main difference between a caught fly ball and the ground ball is that there is an OUT on the caught fly ball... To my mind ... so far... THAT is the play).