[Rich Ives]

Originally Posted by johnsonrod

why would one assume that. if the fielder catches a thrown ball in their glove and has it in their glove for 5 seconds before the tag, much longer than what would be needed to call a batter out on a batted ball, but the ball comes out immediately after the tag, why would one rule the ball was not previously securely held.

would you say, 100% of the time, that when a fielder has the ball securely posses, the runner is out the instant the tag is applied, regardless if the ball comes loose a millisecond after the tag?

If the ball was securely held it would not have come loose.