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Old Thu Jul 22, 2010, 04:32pm
UmpJM UmpJM is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by mbcrowder View Post
...

I think it likely the bad call was the INT itself! Can't see this really happening.
mbcrowder,

You have no basis (other than your own, apparently limited, imagination) for making this judgement.

More to the point, it has ABSOLUTELY NOTHING to do with the question posed in the OP.

The question was if there WERE interference (suspend all disbelief as to whether or not this was a "correct" call), what would the proper ruling be?

To argue whether or not this actually WAS interference is a complete waste of time, because there was not sufficient information supplied to determine whether it properly was or wasn't - so all you can do is engage in baseless speculation on that question.

However, there was (nearly) sufficient information to discuss the actual question asked.

In FED, the "basic" rule (to which there ARE a couple of exceptions) is that runners return to the base occupied at the TOI. So, in a FED game, if the R3 had scored at the time the interference occurred, his run WOULD score (unless the interference were the 3rd out of the half inning).

In OBR, if the interference occurs before the BR has reached 1B, any remainng runners return to their TOP base. UNLESS there was an "intervening play" by the defense that occurred between the TOP and TOI. In which case, runners also return to their TOI base.

Now greymule was the first person on this thread to mention the "intervening play" exception under OBR. He suggests that it only applies if the "intervening play" occurred at home/on a runner attempting to score.

While EVERY published case play touching on the question in the official/authoritative interpretation manuals does, in fact, involve a play at HP - without exception, NONE of them explicitly states that the intervening play MUST occur at home for the exception to apply - again without exception.

So, I am unsure whether the play on R2 at 3B would "count" as an intervening play under OBR rules. If it doesn't, I would think you would have to return the "apparently retired" R2 to 2B if you negate the R3's score and return him to 3B.

JM
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