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Originally posted by Jurassic Referee I got this far in your posts,Nevada,before my brain started to go numb.Let me answer these.I'll try to answer the rest after I have a nap.
1)Throw-ins for non-AP violations under R9-2 NEVER end if a violation occurs?They are only INTERRUPTED?What happens to these interrupted throw-ins?When do they get applied?On the next throw-in?When do they end?Do they ever end?
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According the NFHS rules they never end. The violation interrupts them just the way a foul or a time-out does. Now the penalty for the violation or foul is administered and the game continues from there. There is no going back!
The reason this is so is because of the way the NFHS rules book defines the word end. They do not use the Webster's definition, but provide their own definition. They tell us precisely what it means for a throw-in to end. Similiarly we are told what it means for a quarter to end. This is purely definitional and one must think out of the box here. Lawyers would have an easier time with this because quite often terms are given a legal definition that differs from their everyday usage. That is the case here.
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Originally posted by Jurassic Referee
I learned something here.I've never heard of an "interrupted throw-in" before.Could you point out the rulebook reference to me for that one?
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No, I can't. The term interrupted is mine. I guess I could have used "a throw-in which never ends," but that is more confusing. As I wrote above, these throw-ins have no end as far as basketball defintions are concerned. In common language we agree that they ceased to continue, which means that they ended, but for NFHS rules there was no end. You can see this quite clearly when considering the AP throw-in that is stopped because of a foul. The reason that the arrow doesn't reverse is that the this throw-in never ended. We simply penalize what stopped the throw-in (in this case a foul) and then continue the game from there.
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Originally posted by Jurassic Referee
2)If player A1 throws the ball from the backcourt into the frontcourt and simultaneously hits an an official and A2,the rule doesn't apply and the ball has never gone into the frontcourt?Are you sure of that?
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JR, you have a sharp eye and I am glad that you make me clarify my statements. I am not saying that there is no rule which covers this situation, just that 4-4-4 does not cover the whole picture. When the ball hits two or more players simultaneously, we have to expand our thinking. If one player is inbounds and one is OOB, rule 4-4-4 by itself would not tell us whether the ball is to be considered inbounds or out-of-bounds. There is just as much merit for both. The rules committee therefore clarified with additional rulings that in the case of a multiple simultaneous touch if any player is OOB the ball is OOB. In your case the official is treated as part of the floor. If both the official and the player are inbounds in the frontcourt then the ball is now in the frontcourt. If either one is touching the backcourt or OOB the ball is in the backcourt or OOB. Hope that is clear.
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Originally posted by Jurassic Referee
3)What part of R9-2 has a player violated when he steps onto the court?I don't think that that one is really a tuffy.Try R9-2-5-"Carry the ball onto the court".
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I answered this in the post that you are quoting. If the player keeps one foot OOB is he on the court? I say no. He is OOB. It is obvious that when 9-2-5 says "Carry the ball onto the court" what it means is carry the ball inbounds, since it is certainly not a violation to be carrying the ball OOB during a throw-in. The rules committee simply got caught in their own definitions here. They wanted one foot stepping inbounds on a throw-in to be a violation, but realized that they had defined a player with one foot inbounds and one foot OOB to be OOB. Hence we have this casebook play to augment the rules.
If your brain is numb again, go have a brown pop!