Quote:
Originally Posted by mbyron
"Intentional allowing" is not part of the rules. Compare INT with a thrown ball. R1 batted ball to F6, who starts a 6-4-3 DP. If R1 stops and "intentionally allows" the throw to hit him, are you calling INT? I'm not.
You're not getting this batter for INT because he "intentionally allowed" the ball to hit him, you're getting him for failing to move. And that's not what the rule says.
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Michael,
The passage I quoted from the MLBUM was referring to a
deflected batted ball - where the criteria for judging interference are the same as a batter hit by a batted ball on/over foul territory that the umpire judges could become a fair ball. The offensive player is relieved of his liabilty for interference for coming into contact with the ball, as long as the umpire judges it unintentional.
The MLBUM cite I provided above makes it clear that "intentional allowing" IS part of the proper interpretation of intent when determining interference in situations where intent is relevant.
I completely agree with your "long post", but it's about an undeflected batted ball where intent has no bearing.
JM