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Originally Posted by mbyron
"Intentional allowing" is not part of the rules. Compare INT with a thrown ball. R1 batted ball to F6, who starts a 6-4-3 DP. If R1 stops and "intentionally allows" the throw to hit him, are you calling INT? I'm not.
You're not getting this batter for INT because he "intentionally allowed" the ball to hit him, you're getting him for failing to move. And that's not what the rule says.
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Michael,
Why do you think this should be treated any differently than:
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Of course, a runner may still be guilty of intentional interference even after an infielder deflects the ball if the runner deliberately deflects the ball or allows it to strike him when he could have reasonably avoided it.
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This is from the MLBUM discussion of a runner being hit by a deflected batted ball, but I would think the same principle would apply - with equity.
JM
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