Quote:
Originally Posted by just another ref
It is a stretch to link 2-6 to this play. No one is recommending overruling or setting aside anything.
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Why is it a stretch? That rule tells you that you can't set either foul call aside
AFTER they're
BOTH made. Isn't that contrary to what you're advocating?
And before we go down this road again, let me say I have no intention of revisiting any ground beyond this post.