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Foul tip has to hit F2's hand/mitt
For a batted ball to be a foul tip, it has to go directly to F2's hand/mitt. I guess the batted ball could have touched f2's mitt and then he bobbled it and trapped it on his shinguard for a foul tip. But maybe PU saw that it did not touch f2's glove, thought it was too sloppy to give the defense the benefit of the doubt and called it a foul ball. Unless there is slo-mo instant replay, no one is going to know if it touched f2's hand/mitt.
If PU sells it either way, I wouldn't have a problem.
Last edited by bluehair; Sun Mar 28, 2010 at 10:58am.
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