[scarolinablue]

Had this happen the other night (FED):

R1, R3, no outs. B/R hits lazy fly ball to F7, not deep enough for the runners to tag up. B/R continues running to second base (they are coached to hustle to second on any fly ball), passing R1 who had retreated back to first. The defense almost threw to second to "retire" the runner before recognizing it was the B/R. No other play took place.

Now, as the PU, I call time and summon the OC. I gave him a verbal admonishing to cease and desist under threat of potentially getting a second out should the defense throw the ball in an attempt to retire this runner by declaring such an act interference. He asked if it was an illegal act. Stumped a bit, I said not specifically it drew a throw from the defense. (I don't see anything in the rule book or case book that specifically says a retired runner cannot pass a preceding unobstructed runner, only that a runner cannot do so or be declared out immediately (8-4-2g for interference, but not specific to this sitch, and 8-4-2m for passing a preceding unobstructed runner). So he repeats, "it's not illegal, then?" To which I replied, not unless he draws a throw, at which point I will declare the runner closest to home out due to interference by the retired runner, and potentially I would get an ejection under a "travesty of the game" situation. To sum it up, I told the coach to not get himself in that situation, and to not have his kids running to second base if there are any other runners on base.

Was I pretty close on this one? Again, I don't see this specific situation addressed, but I would think it could be construed as interference should it draw a throw, and I could declare the closest runner to home out. Would an ejection be a bit much here? I think it would and wouldn't likely do that, unless it happened again after instructing the offense to stop, and after that, I might eject the OC instead of the player. OK, maybe that's a bit much.