Fri Mar 05, 2010, 07:55am
|
|
Official Forum Member
|
|
Join Date: Dec 2007
Location: NY
Posts: 1,428
|
|
Quote:
Originally Posted by Rich Ives
Of course the logic applies
Imagine this.
A ball is settled 1/16" short of 1B (not touching it) but only 1/4" of the ball is over fair territory and none of it is touching fair territory. Is it fair or foul?
If you move it the 1/16" so it IS touching 1B then it is a fair ball by rule, even though only 1/4" of it is over fair teritory.
Therefore it makes sense to call it fair for the settled but not touching ball.
Imagine this:
A batted ball is leaving the playing field, Only 1/32" of it is over fair territory, but that causes it to hit the foul pole. It's a fair ball because it hit the pole even though only a small portion of it was fair. Apply the same thought to a settled ball.
|
That makes sense (finally).
|