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Old Sun Dec 29, 2002, 05:02pm
Nevadaref Nevadaref is offline
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Join Date: Nov 2002
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Quote:
Originally posted by BktBallRef
Quote:
Originally posted by Nevadaref
If A2 merely touches the ball and then lets go while A1 continuously holds onto the ball, no throw-in provision has been broken and there should not be a call. The throw-in simply continues.
You're kidding, right?

A violation has been committed as soon as A2 touches the ball. It's not necessary for him to take possession. A1 did not pass the ball and it touched a player who is inbounds. That's a violation of 9-2-2. 9-2-11 Note allows the defense to touch the ball, not the offense. The either team could legally do this, as you suggest, there would be no need for the Note.
No, I'm not kidding.
I do believe it is necessary for A2 to take possession before there is a violation. Remember A1 has 5 seconds to fulfill the requirements of 9-2-2. If A2 touches the ball when the throw-in count is at 2, A1 still has time to make a pass that would meet 9-2-2. The only restrictions on a teammate during a throw-in are listed in articles 3, 9, 10, and 12.
I think that note is there to make extra sure that officials don't give a T to the defender in this situation, and that is why it specifically states that the opponent may legally touch the ball. Furthermore, the note only says opponent since the restriction in article 11 (where the note is found) is only for the opponents.
If this interpretation troubles you, try thinking about it this way. Since a teammate of the thrower may legally have his arm through the boundary plane, would you call a violation if he reached over while standing inbounds and touched the ball while it was still in the thrower's hands, but on the OOB side of the plane?
I say there is nothing in the rules against this.
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