Quote:
Originally posted by RookieDude
Thanks for clearing that up Nevadaref...but I still have that nagging question of why it isn't a violation on A1, per 9-2-2, when A1 dosen't pass the ball directly into the court...when B1 grabs it...but it is when A2 grabs it.
Dude
P.S.(and to be precise, I didn't say A2 would cause the violation....one of the "big dogs" did.) 
[Edited by RookieDude on Dec 29th, 2002 at 03:13 PM]
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Let's assume A1 is not involved in a point shaving scheme and, therefore, wants team A to win.
He is, therefore, not going to want team B to take control of the ball. If B1 grabs the ball, it is because he is going after it whereas A2 is being passed to. Yes, this gives an advantage to the defense, but it can make for a good, exciting play that is allowed by rule.