Quote:
Originally posted by Nevadaref
Quote:
Originally posted by BktBallRef
Yep. Since A1 is legally OOB, in this case, he isn't violating and niether is B1. But as dude pointed out, A2 would cause a violation.
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If we wish to be precise, this isn't exactly correct. In both cases it is not a violation on A1 to be touching the ball, since he has not yet released the ball on a throw-in pass, and therefore, the throw-in has not yet ended.
Now, obviously B1 has done nothing wrong if he grabs the ball after A1 holds it across the boundary plane.
But if A2 grabs the ball, it depends on whether or not A1 releases it. If A2 merely touches the ball and then lets go while A1 continuously holds onto the ball, no throw-in provision has been broken and there should not be a call. The throw-in simply continues.
However, if A2 takes the ball out of A1's hands, then A1 (not A2) has violated. Provision 9-2-2 has been broken, since A1 has failed to pass the ball directly into the court. Handing the ball to an inbounds teammate is not the same as passing it to him.
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Thanks for clearing that up Nevadaref...but I still have that nagging question of why it isn't a violation on A1, per 9-2-2, when A1 dosen't pass the ball directly into the court...when B1 grabs it...but it is when A2 grabs it.
Dude
P.S.(and to be precise, I didn't say A2 would cause the violation....one of the "big dogs" did.)
[Edited by RookieDude on Dec 29th, 2002 at 03:13 PM]