Quote:
Originally posted by dblref
Tony: Since A1 is touching the ball OOB while the ball has already broken the plane (clearly in), why would this not be a violation by A1 for touching an in-bound ball while being OOB. Is it because it was a throw-in?
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Yep. Since A1 is legally OOB, in this case, he isn't violating and niether is B1. But as dude pointed out, A2 would cause a violation.