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Old Wed Nov 11, 2009, 11:59am
JRutledge JRutledge is offline
Do not give a damn!!
 
Join Date: Jun 2000
Location: On the border
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Quote:
Originally Posted by DJ_NV View Post
Ok but we don't have a COP per 2-34-3. In order for there to be a COP, there needs to be player possession as defined in 2-34-1. Since R only touched the ball and did not control it, we don't have a COP by definition even though PSK philossophy kind of dictates that intent during a kick. Still, it's not supported by rule. If we don't have a COP, then we can't have an IFP per 7-5-2-a. I agree with everything else you said about the new series.
But K can advance the ball and will end up with the ball if they do not do anything else with the ball. So I am not sure this would not be on some level a COP. But I am not sure about that, but I thought that needed to be pointed out.

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