Quote:
Originally Posted by Snaqwells
Okay, here's a rule question from a basketball guy.
Isn't intent required for interference in this play? If the batter didn't know where the ball was, how could he have intended to interfere?
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I can think of a lot of analogies where a basketball player did not intend to do something, but is penalized for doing it.
If the batter does not vacate the area, when he could have, just kind of stood there dumbfounded, he can be called for INT if he was where he should not be if he had any awareness of what was going on.