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Old Thu Sep 10, 2009, 08:17am
AtlUmpSteve AtlUmpSteve is offline
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Location: Woodstock, GA; Atlanta area
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Quote:
Originally Posted by BratzCoach View Post
I was always under the impression that if a runner scored due to an error, then it was an unearned run. However, I had a debate with another parent during a game the other day as to whether or not the run could become an earned run later.

Here is what happened:
There was one out, and no one on base. The batter hit a ball to center field for a single. The fielder misplayed the ball, and the runner circled the bases to score. This is an unearned run, since the batter would not have scored without the error by the centerfielder.

The next batter hit a home run that cleared the fence. The parent next to me said that now the previous run is earned, since the runner would have scored on the home run. I--and the home plate umpire whom we made the inquiry to--said that once the run is unearned, it's unearned.

Any answers?
The parent was correct.

As a rule of thumb, earned vs unearned is based on a mental replay of the inning assuming the errors were not made; and any run that would have scored in that mental exercise is earned. In your exact scenario, both runs became earned.

If a run is scored after an apparent third out, or the run is scored by a runner that is on base only because of an error, or who is advanced only because of an error and would NOT have advanced before a third out, THEN the run stays unearned. But, if a run would have scored even if all obvious plays had been made, then it is earned, even if there was an intervening error.

Hope that makes sense.
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