Ch1twn - you missed answering the second part of my question. Each time B1 fouls A1 during the pass. The ball travels the same distance, the only change in the play is where A2 and B2 are during the pass. Therefore the contact is the same for each:
A. If A1's pass connects to A2; A2 goes in for a dunk. No problem with a no call.
- Great, but that's hard to do when you pop as soon as the contact on the passers arm occurs.
B. If A1 passes to A2 - defense is back so no chance of a layup. Now do you
judge the
conatact to be a foul?
- If A2 catches the pass I don't see how it can be a foul as the contact on A1 didn't affect the play.
C. If A1's pass does not make it to A2; Obviously, most of the time you can judge the pass not strong enough to reach A2 - therefore the foul can be called. But, what happens if the ball MAY have a chance to reach A2.
Do you call a delayed foul - some two / three seconds after the foul occurred?
- Absolutely, we make decisions after the play has completed ie; SDF: start, develop, finish
To make a decision while the ball is still traveling to the intended receiver is not seeing the whole play. I have no problem with popping or explaining a late, correct whistle.
Another example:
If A1 is taking a jump shot - B1 contacts A1 on the elbow,
A. Ball goes in, No foul as the contact did not change the play?
- It all depends 
was the "contact" an incidental love tap while attempting to play the ball or did B1 purposely hit the elbow to affect the shot. What's the time & score? It may fall under the category of, right call but wrong time.
B. Ball does not go in, foul is called as the foul has changed the play?
- Same as above
The Fouls I'm trying to discuss are the calls where
there is illegal contact, but you -
pass on them 
or call them -
depending upon the outcome of the complete play. I trying to understand at what level of adv / disadv (based upon my examples) do you call the contact as a foul.
I'm not trying to argue if contact occurrs there should always be a whistle.
My question has always been: There is either a time constraint when the play is completed (hence my baseball pass example), OR there is the preceived advantage - does completing a pass nullify the foul? Or does the play need to offer a greater advantage to the offense (i.e. scoring opportunity) for a good no call.