|
Ch1twn - you missed answering the second part of my question. Each time B1 fouls A1 during the pass. The ball travels the same distance, the only change in the play is where A2 and B2 are during the pass. Therefore the contact is the same for each:
A. If A1's pass connects to A2; A2 goes in for a dunk. No problem with a no call.
B. If A1 passes to A2 - defense is back so no chance of a layup. Now do you call the foul?
C. If A1's pass does not make it to A2; Obviously, most of the time you can judge the pass not strong enough to reach A2 - therefore the foul can be called. But, what happens if the ball MAY have a chance to reach A2. Do you call a delayed foul - some two / three seconds after the foul occurred?
Another example:
If A1 is taking a jump shot - B1 contacts A1 on the elbow,
A. Ball goes in, No foul as the contact did not change the play?
B. Ball does not go in, foul is called as the foul has changed the play?
The Fouls I'm trying to discuss are the calls where there is illegal contact, but you - pass on them or call them - depending upon the outcome of the complete play. I trying to understand at what level of adv / disadv (based upon my examples) do you call the contact as a foul.
I'm not trying to argue if contact occurrs there should always be a whistle.
My question has always been: There is either a time constraint when the play is completed (hence my baseball pass example), OR there is the preceived advantage - does completing a pass nullify the foul? Or does the play need to offer a greater advantage to the offense (i.e. scoring opportunity) for a good no call.
|