[greymule]

What is the intent of the rule ?

To direct umpires as to how to call the play when a runner is hit by a fair batted ball.

Did the batter / runner interfere with a player having a chance at an out ?

No. But that's irrelevant unless the ball has already passed an infielder.

Which player had a chance for an out ?

None. But again it's irrelevant.

Think of it this way: on an uncaught third strike, the batter is out if 1B is occupied with less than 2 out. The intent of the rule is to keep F2 from "dropping" strike 3 and getting an easy double play. However, if the runner from 1B is stealing on the pitch, and strike 3 gets past F2 all the way to the backstop, F2 would have no chance at a double play and probably no chance to put either the runner or the batter out. But the batter is still out, even if the uncaught third strike bounces off F2 and goes into the dugout, because that's what the rule says.

This is not some ASA peculiarity. Every code I know of has the same rule, except that the codes differ a bit in what constitutes "passing an infielder."