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If he fouled it, how could his actions show you he did something else?
If he DID foul it , wouldn't he have acted exactly how he did? I think the catcher must have heard a foul because he did not go tag him until the pitcher told him to.(not sure if that was in this clip or the mlb .tv archive that I looked up)
I think that if he actually swung and missed, he would have been more likely to run. The ball had bounced somewhere, he did not know where...why would he not run? He had a better chance to make first safely somehow than to fool the umpire, didn't he? I would think that fooling the umpire on a play like this is going to happen VERY infrequently...an overthrow to first happens WAY more often than that.
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