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Why? Doesn't 10-5-1f deal with only the opponent of the scoring team? (I still don't have my 09 books with me). How does that apply to the situation where the scoring team has committed during the down a foul that is enforced as dead ball?
KW, I think by ruling according to what you think was intended, you are treading on the same dangerous ground ajmc treads with his whole "common sense" justification for some of his interps.
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Indecision may or may not be my problem
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