[PeteBooth]

Two questions:
1) If the umpire MAY adjuge an unintentional act by the batter as interference, and if this isn't the time to apply such a judgment, when should it be applied?
2) The interpretations we've been looking at assume that there was no intent to interfere. But your statement implies that unless there WAS intent, you would judge there was no interference. Is that what you meant? [/B][/QUOTE]

What I meant was that OBR doesn't explain this play the way NCAA / FED does. Even Evans interpretation still leaves this play vague by his own terminology.

I'll try and answer using logic (OK Mr. Spock) The batter swung and missed, F2 blocked the ball and B1 is now high tailing towards first. A runner MUST avoid a fielder attempting to make a play - Well at this point no-one is in front of him - so he isn't hindering anybody.

The actual play is behind the runner, therefore, if the ball sudddenly ricochets off of someone or something, unless the runner purposely deflects the coarse of the ball - I say No interference.

On a thrown ball, intent comes into play vs. a batted ball in which it makes no difference. Intent is very difficult to judge.

Pete Booth