Quote:
Originally Posted by umpjim
If you watched the 2008 World Series you would have seen Tampa Bay pitcher JP Howell pitch the windup and set from the same foot position.
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Come on uj----What does Howell do different in the stretch vs windup so that the MLBU know which position he is in? I cannot believe the MLBU just let him go either way without some type of discernable difference even if the foot position can be the same.
Tuss
Your first scenario sounds like telling the manager on a left handed move that the pitchers free foot passed the front edge (only) of the rubber and that his step was towards the plate rather than first. In other words, you found 2 things wrong with his move even though you were possibly only correct on the one part (you lucky dog you).
Even if you were possibly wrong (possibly---HTBT) on the first part of your first balk, you were dead right on the second part of your first balk, and therefore the protest should not be allowed. The TD or League president or whatever they are called where you are, always has at his disposal that little section in the book (or I think it used to be there and therefor I cannot quote it precisely), that the protest should be denied (even if wrong) for any ruling that does not materially affect the outcome of the game. I am sure this allows a quite liberal interpretation to be used, (and what is liberal to one TD may not be liberal to another TD), if the TD needs an (out) in these situations.
Your 2nd balk seems like a HTBT situation. I am waiting to hear what uj says about a discernable difference since he is usually on top of things. However, if there was no difference to distinguish either move and it looked like it was used to deceive, it would seem like you were correct, but once again this might be one of those HTBT and even if all the good balk umps on this board were there and voted on the move, the vote could come out 50/50 or whatever anyway.