[TussAgee11]

Alright, let me do some cleaning up of the story.

@BC - I turned because I was back to C, where I needed to be for the next play. The coach was repeating himself. I didn't just walk away, I said something to the effect of "ok coach, you've had your say and gotten your answer, let's play."

@JM et al - On the first balk, the pitcher's movements were all in one motion. 8.05c comment - "However, if, with runners on first and third, the pitcher, while in contact with the rubber, steps toward third and then immediately and in practically the same motion “wheels” and throws to first base, it is obviously an attempt to deceive the runner at first base, and in such a move it is practically impossible to step directly toward first base before the throw to first base, and such a move shall be called a balk."

This is exactly what happened. The pitcher stepped directly towards third and then all in one motion wheeled and threw to first. I thought this was what I described in the OP... and I believe this comment covers it, does it not? I described the lack of arm motion to simply paint a picture of how quickly the all-in-one motion occurred...

On the 2nd balk... as stated in my earlier post, the pitchers hands were by his each side. 8.01 (a) When a pitcher holds the ball with both hands in front of his body, with his pivot foot in contact with the pitcher’s plate and his other foot free, he will be considered in the Windup Position. Since this is not what happened, I did not consider him in the windup, and figured the set was more appropriate.

I agree that the body position I indicated is not of importance, 8.01(b) does indeed indicate it is the free foot's position that indicates the set is being used. To be honest, I couldn't tell you where his free foot was, the hole on the mound was pretty deep. So I would agree that I was wrong to assume that he was legally, although not intentionally, using the set position.

However, by rule, he wasn't using the wind-up position either. I judged his actions to be deceitful to the base runners since it was not clear what position he was using, and therefore, whether or not base runners and the batter should expect a delivery or his hands to come together for a stop (particularly since his regular set position was preceded by his free foot being wide open and his hands at his sides before going into the stretch). His windup during the game was for his hands to come in front of his body while taking the signs.

Lastly, some might say since I wasn't sure where the free foot was I should have passed. But 8.01 comment: "Rule 8.01(a) Comment: In the Windup Position, a pitcher is permitted to have his “free” foot on the rubber, in front of the rubber, behind the rubber or off the side of the rubber." And of course, in the set, his free foot should be in front of the rubber. So I don't see how the free foot is the be all end all in determining set vs windup, just based off reading the rules. Which leaves the question, what is?

I'm not trying to be stubborn, in fact I am open to criticism of all kinds and will admit if I was wrong I'm just not so sure why the rules I cited above should not be applied in these two situations.