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I realize that intent isn't part of the rule, but in reality, if the batter were to make any movement to interfere, it most certainly wouldn't be accidental, now would it? I mean, if he were truly innocent, he would be standing statue-still in the box, not wanting to interfere. So he would in all practicality have to "intentionally and deliberately" try to interfere in order for interference to be called, because he would know not to make any movement to interfere.
6.06(c) He interferes with the catcher’s fielding or throwing by stepping out of the batter’s box or making any other movement that hinders the catcher’s play at home base.
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Matthew 15:14, 1 Corinthians 1:23-25
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