Quote:
Originally Posted by SmokeEater
The rules also state somewhere that no one is allowed to initiate contact for the purpose of gaining an advantage. (Wish I had the rule numbers to back that up)
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No, it doesn't say that. It says that they may not gain an advantage not intended by rule. It is in the paragraph that preceeds rule 1. Some advantages are intended by rule.
Initiating or causing contact is not really the issue. It is often the case that both players' actions cause contact but only one is liable for the foul. The one who commts the foul may or may not be the one who initiates contact.
Consider a drive to the basket where A1 and B1 are both racing to make a play and meet at some point and collide. Both of them caused/initiated the contact (if either had yielded, there would have been no contact). Who gets the foul depends on what the specific actions/movement were at the time of contact. B1's action may or may not be legal. A1's action may or may not be legal.
Example 1a. Stationary A1 observes B1 running forward (towards A1) and then choses to drive towards the basket and into B1 but B1 comes to a stop and/or starts to back way before contact. B1 satisfied the LGP principles and the call will be a charge.
Example 1b. Stationary A1 observes B1 running forward (towards A1) and then choses to drive towards the basket and into B1. A1 initiated contact but we have a block...as B1 violated the LGP requirements at the time of contact.
Example 2. B5 takes a defensive poistion with his arms stetched out laterally. B5 holds this position for 20 seconds when A1 drives sees the arms and drives through them to the basket....getting closelined. Who initiated the contact? A1. Who is called for the foul? B5.
Example 3. A1 is holding the ball. B2 swats at the ball, contacting most of A1's left hand such that it breaks A1's finger(s). B2 initiated and caused the contact and got an advantage but there is no foul since B2's actions are expressly legal.