[David B]

Originally Posted by jdmara

It's a difficult play to describe because time and distance is a factor in this play. Unfortunately I'm not very eloquent in describing it.

Let me try another way to describe it again and tell you our ruling.

R2 and R1 with 1 out. The middle infielders are playing deep and F5 is playing even (or slightly in front of) third base. The ball is hit to the left side of the infield (saying "between F5 and F6" maybe mischaracterizes the play). F5 takes off towards 2B and slightly back. Meanwhile, F6 running towards 3B if it gets past F5. F5 lunges (bends over and stretches) for the ball but misses it by a few inches. The ball was past F5 when R2 collides with F5. They both fell to the ground.

F5 went down hurt immediately, holding his leg. F6 picked up the ball and tagged R2 as we called time to help the injured player. At this point, my partner or myself had made any call. I think he was waiting for me and I was waiting for him.

We discussed the play while the coaches were helping the injured F5. We talked about it and said that although the ball was past F5, he was still in the act of fielding the ball. We didn't know if he would still be protected since the ball did get past him before contact was made. However, it was unreasonable, and impossible, for him to vacate "the baseline" in an instant.

Therefore, we determined it was incidental contact (for lack of a better term) We were actually leaning towards runner's interference but since the ball was past the fielder, we couldn't justify it. The offensive coach was reasonable with his acceptance of the decision but said he disagreed with the call.

I obviously have thought about this play a lot and I see where you could call obstruction but I'm having trouble with one key item.

1. When is the fielder no longer protected from (unintentional) contact by a baserunner?



Does this rule mean that he is entitled to his "original location" for a reasonable amount of time? He obviously can't be expected to disappear in an instant, right?

Thanks Gentleman! I'm certain we didn't come up with the correct ruling but my tiny little brain can't reason this one out

-Josh

Good question, these are the plays where we have to be an umpire etc., (we have to make a decision based on what we see)

From my understanding, since this ball was not deflected by F1, the umpire can choose a fielder to protect. However, since the ball was past F5, and he did not have a play on the ball he is still guilty of obstruction.

From my reading the fielder is only protected on his "initial attempt" to field the ball.

Now if he deflected the ball and it's within his grasp (umpires judgement), then the umpire could judge that the runner interfered.

I'm sure some might have the official interpretations.

Thansk
David