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Old Wed May 20, 2009, 10:52pm
M&M Guy M&M Guy is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by BktBallRef View Post
Sure it does, unless you have a different rule book than I do. Mine says it's an intentional foul if it neutralizes an opponent's obvious advantageous position. An offensive player headed to the bucket with no defender in front of him is in an obvious advantageous position.

I try to not say always but more times than not, I've got an INT foul in this situation.
I understand your point, but give me a definition of "obvious advantageous position". I think we all agree on the example of a defender grabbing the player on the fast break from behind. But I'm not so sure contact that would be a normal, common foul (picture the ever-popular "reach-in" contact on the arm of the dribbler), would be an "almost always" intentional foul simply because there are no other defenders between the dribbler and the basket. If so, would you have an intentional on the half-court "clear-out" play, where A1 beats B1 off the dribble along the endline while all the other players are on the other side of the court, and has the exact same contact on the arm? Same contact, same positioning of A1 and B1, no other player at that moment between A1 and the basket, so why isn't that considered the same "obvious advantageous position", versus the fast-break example?
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