Mens wreck last night:

A1 dribbles the length of the court & immediately upon gathering the ball at the FT line, B1 fouls A1 (tweet). A1 takes 2 steps & misses the shot.

I say A1 shoots 2 FTs my more veteran partners say “he wasn’t in the act” when the foul occurred.
Thoughts??

Why is it soooooo difficult for us as officials to understand that once the ball is gathered on a drive to the bucket, that’s when the act of shooting begins… unless he passes the ball. That's one of the reasons we should have a patient whistle on North/South plays. So many of us say “that’s NBA”.
Isn’t the rule the same in all 3 codes???