[jdmara]

Originally Posted by JPaco54

Was confused when a coach debating a call on interference stated that F4 gave up or gave way on the ball when R1 ran in front of him and that it should not be interference. I am PU and my partner in B position, ruled interference on R1. Ground ball to F4 who moves forward to field the ball, R1 tries to avoid fielder, stops, stutters then tries to move toward infield grass but F4 to avoid collision pulls up on the ball and ball goes thru his legs. BU calls interference on runner. HC asks BU if the runner touched F4. He said no and stated that there should be no interference since there was no contact and F4 GAVE UP on the ball meaning that he no longer opted to field the ball and without someone attempting to field the ball and no contact therefore no interference. Partner came to me for help and I agreed with him on the interference that the runner either, confused, hindered or obstructed F4 from fielding the ball and that R1 does not have to make contact to cause interference. HC disagreed, that there must be contact. We talked a bit and then proceeded to play ball. Must say this competitive youth game of AAA 12's was a great game some tough calls but both coaches were professional and respectful on close and questionable calls. So, the question is this Give Way statement. Reread the rules that night, searched some internet sights and could find nothing in this regard of a fielder giving way or giving up on the ball (yielding to the runner?) Any quick insight on this. Thanks in advance!

I agree with the coach on this one. Unless the runner verbally said something to the fielder (ie "I got it"), I don't have interference when there is no contact.

-Josh