[Mark T. DeNucci, Sr.]

Originally Posted by skippyflipjack

Non-ref here hoping for some authoritative information. I was at the Cal game this past weekend and late in the 1st half a call was made that would eventually result in 7 points for UCLA. I think it was a fair call but nearly every other Cal fan disagrees.

Cal's Theo Robertson doubles the ball and loses his man, who heads towards the basket to receive the pass and easy score. Robertson can't make up the distance so grabs the player's shoulder as he goes up for the layup. Ref underneath the basket whistles the intentional foul as the ball falls through the hoop. Player makes both free throws and UCLA hits a 3 on the ensuing possession, netting them 7 points total.

ESPN was doing the game. Digger Phelps called "intentional!" immediately, while Jay Bilas thought it was "technically" an intentional foul but that he doesn't like the rule itself; he thinks there should just be flagrant or no-call, since "intent" is hard to ascertain. (Cal fans agreed, perhaps unaware that a flagrant would have meant Theo's ejection.) Bobby Knight thinks it's an awful call, but I think his reasoning is that an intentional personal foul should be before the shot. "I don't think you can call an intentional foul on a guy who gets fouled going to the bucket and makes the bucket," he said; I'm not sure if he meant that a ref isn't allowed or that they shouldn't in good conscience.

Here's video; the foul is shown in replay at 1:30. Personally, even though it killed the Bears I think it was good refereeing. The ref made the "intentional" signal without hesitating, and it's not like anyone had to judge Theo's "intent" -- he grabbed the guy by the shoulder and was touching the player w/ his other hand.

That said, I've read the NCAA rule but don't have the experience to know the intent of the rule regarding grabbing a player to prevent a score. Was this correctly applied, or is the rule mainly intended to govern action up the court where there's no chance of a shot? Should the rule be amended so an intentional personal followed by a make results in 1 free throw plus the ball? Should the ref have waited a moment and let the basket result inform his decision? Would you have made this call?

Thanks for any enlightenment...

I do not have to watch the play because your description of the play makes it easy to make the call: intentional personal foul.


About 10 years ago I had a boys' H.S. jr. varsity game where the home team fought back from a 20+ point half-time deficiet to have the ball with 20 seconds left and down by 8 points. H1 puts up a 3 pt attempt which touches but nothing but net, just after H1 releases the ball, V1 hammers H1 in the stomach with his should like he is trying to take out a wide receiver. IPF on V1. H1 makes both free throws and then H1 inbounds the ball to H2 who is wide open under Team H's basket, and he makes the layup to tie the ball game.

MTD, Sr.