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Old Wed Feb 18, 2009, 10:16am
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Adam Adam is offline
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Join Date: Jan 2003
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Nevadaref View Post
It has always been clear to me. I found it strange that the case book used to say to stop the game and give the ball back to the FTer without any penalty, but that's what I did because that was what the ruling said to do.
Now I don't that anymore.

He lost it. It's no longer at his disposal. Seems simple and logical to me.
I took a different reasoning for the case play; it prevents a defender from having to grab it and toss it away. Just call the violation. I agree with your bewilderment on the previous case play.

Your reasoning actually makes more sense to me, though.
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