[greymule]

ASA and Fed define foul tip almost exactly the same:

ASA: A batted ball that goes directly from the bat, not higher than the batter's head, to the catcher's hand(s) or glove and is legally caught by the catcher.
Fed: . . . a batted ball that goes directly from the bat to the catcher's mitt or hand not higher than the batter's head and is legally caught by the catcher.

Dakota: My Fed 2002 softball rule book does not include "speedily" in the definition. Where do you see that?

According to ASA's case book ruling, the catcher going to the ball is the determining factor in whether the ball went "directly" or not. Therefore, "not over the batter's head" is irrelevant. If on a pitch that resembled anything like a strike the ball was hit over the batter's head, then the catcher would have to go to the ball to catch it. Now there is that one play where the batter foul tips a pitch that's already over her head (not so third-world, either; I've seen it happen more than once). Does ASA include the "not over the batter's head" clause simply to ensure that we call an out in that particular case? Hard to believe.

What if ASA defined a foul tip as "a batted ball that goes directly from the bat to the catcher's mitt or hand and is legally caught by the catcher"? Except for that one "third-world" play, what play would we call any differently?