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Originally posted by greymule
What about ball 4 that gets away from F2 and contacts the batter in these various stages of running to 1B? Do the same interpretive conflicts apply?
IMO you are comparing Apples to Oranges. On ball 4, B1 becomes a runner and is entitled to first base without liability to be put out. In the example given although B1 became a runner on a dropped thrid strike he /she is not entitiled to first base without liability. Different scenarios.
It's a real stretch but if there were other runners on base, B1 although entitiled to first base without liability to be put out cannot interfere with F2's ability to make a play on another runner, but B1 would have to do something extreme.
Pete Booth
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Peter M. Booth
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