Quote:
Originally Posted by Scrapper1
If they get one, then by definition they get at least one. I understand that it may muddy the waters to phrase it that way, but technically, it's not incorrect to say it that way.
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While "exactly one" exists in the domain of "at least one", they are far from being equivalent. There are an infinite number of, well numbers, that are at least one. "Exactly one" is only one of them. I have to agree with Zeedonk. The answer to the question, as written, is false.
By the way, suppose the IRS changed the 1040 to indicate your tax liability was "at least" the amount on line whatever. Imagine the uproar
