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Originally Posted by IRISHMAFIA
Don't understand your concern. ...
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For there to be interference there must be a play that was interfered with.(Rule 1)
A play (again, Rule 1), is an attempt to retire a runner.
Yet, the defender who was crashed into did not have the ball.
Where was the play that was interfered with? If there was no play, how could there be interference?
Does "about to receive" come back? Do we have a broader definition of interference (no play necessary)?