[greymule]

Did anyone see the odd call in the bottom of the 4th in the Yankees-Royals game today?

Johnny Damon was stealing, and Derek Jeter swung at a pitch, which caused him to move a little in toward the plate. As catcher John Buck was throwing to 2B, Jeter, apparently in an attempt to avoid contact, bent over the plate, and Buck threw over him. It appeared that there was some contact.

Umpire Wally Bell sent Damon back to first and let Jeter continue his at bat.

The announcers were puzzled, and a little while later they claimed to have received a "ruling," which was that on inadvertent interference by the batter, a stealing runner is simply returned to his original base. They then went on to remind the fans (several times) that if Jeter had been called for intentional interference, Damon (!) would have been called out.

Of course, 6.06 (c) and Comment clearly say that the batter is out, not the runner.

But 6.06 (c) doesn't say anything about "inadvertent" or "unintentional" batter interference, only that if the batter's backswing hits the catcher or the ball before the catcher has securely held the ball, it's a strike only, and the runner cannot advance.

The log in the New York Times describes the play thus:

"NOTE: Unintentional contact on Derek Jeter sent Johnny Damon back to first resulting in no stolen base."

I'm thinking that Bell got it wrong. It's either (1) INT on Jeter and Jeter's out with Damon returning, or (2) no INT and Damon's safe at 2B. Anyone know something I'm missing?