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Ice Man, what I meant by overruling the rule had to do with the interference at second base....I know how to rule on interference and I did so correctly in the play but I was just taking the scenario one step further by thinking of the same play except that R3, at the exact time of the interference at second, had already reached or was one step away from home. Now, picturing this in your mind, you know that there is no way that the throw will retire the runner at home and in seeing this "overrule the interference rule" and allow the run to score anyway.
I know this is not the correct thing to do and like you said the rule is very specific on what to do and I think everyone knows that. However, was there ever a time in baseball rule history where the ump applied judgement to this part of the rule (meaning the actual application of the rule). There had to be judgement in calling the interference but does anyone know of any instances where it is ok to apply judgement when awarding the rule itself? Am I making any sense?
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