Quote:
Originally posted by IRISHMAFIA
Had a play last night that reminded me of a recent thread.
Runner on 1B, no outs.
B3 hits a pop-up in the infield and sulkingly walks toward the dugout with the bat pressed to the back of his neck.
F1 notices him not running and lets the ball drop near the pitcher's plate. R1 is frozen on 1B as the pitcher gains control of the ball after a wierd bounce. BR still not running. Defense has an easy twin killing.
Them: You've gotta call in infield fly.
Me: Nope, there's no runner on 2B.
Them: He did that intentionally.
Me: Sure did!
Them: You've gotta call something.
Me: I called exactly what I'm supposed to call.
Them: No you didn't, you called them out.
Me: Like I said . . . .
I think they're still confused. 
|
******
From your description, it sounds as if the batted ball was allowed to fall to the ground untouched. That can NOT be an intentionally dropped ball. To be intentionally dropped, a fielder must AT LEAST touch the ball.
The debate on this rule revolves more around whether the fielder must first make a legal catch THEN drop it for the rule to be invoked *or* whether the fielder can also just bat the ball down, without catching it, for the rule to be invoked. Or both.
I personally believe the rule is intended to prevent ANY intentional act on the part of the fielder, that puts the runners at risk or creates the impression that they are at risk.
But I'm aware that there are those that disagree.
I do know one thing ... this rule in baseball would cause the batter to automatically be called out if:
1) the fielder makes a legal catch and then quickly (and intentionally) drops the ball, or
2) the fielder touches the ball in some fashion that can not remotely be construed as a catch, and INTENTIONALLY allows the ball to fall to the ground.
There is no need to make any distinction as to whether the fielder made a legal catch or not. Naturally, if the fielder never touches the ball, regardless of his intent, the rule can not be invoked.