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Originally Posted by BktBallRef
Sometimes the discussions on here amaze me.
In order for A1 to pass the ball to A2 in this situation, he must be completely OOB (not touching inbounds).
If he isn't, then the pass is a throw-in.
A2 commits an OOB violation because he is OOB with the ball when the throw-in ends.
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My purpose for posting the scenario is not whether or not it is a violation, but WHY it is a violation per a rules citation. At the time no one had a rule book handy and we (those who thought it was a violation) were having trouble articulating why it was a violation to the official in question.
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A-hole formerly known as BNR
Last edited by Raymond; Thu Aug 07, 2008 at 09:18am.
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