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Old Mon Aug 04, 2008, 10:34pm
Nevadaref Nevadaref is offline
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Join Date: Nov 2002
Posts: 15,003
It is nonsense.

That is because it doesn't follow the actual text of the rule.

9-9-1 . . . A player shall not be the first to touch a ball after it has been in team control in the frontcourt, if he/she or a teammate last touched or was touched by the ball in the frontcourt before it went to the backcourt.


In situation 10 was A2 or a teammate of his in contact with the ball BEFORE it gained backcourt status? NO. The first contact occurred simultaneously with the ball changing status from frontcourt to backcourt. That's not BEFORE and the rule requires BEFORE.

If the ruling in situation 10 were held to be correct, then the following play would also have be declared a backcourt violation:

A1 is holding the ball. He is standing on the center restraining circle in his backcourt exactly six feet from the division line. B1 is standing in the same place on the other side of the division line. Therefore the players are exactly twelve feet apart and in opposite halves of the court. A1 throws a pass intended for A2 who is located at the FT line in Team A's frontcourt, but B1 jumps and blocks the pass with one hand. He deflects the ball directly back to A1 who catches it. During the entire play A1 remained in the same spot on the floor and the ball never touched the court.

MTD, have you been calling backcourt violations on that play since 1971?
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