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Old Fri Jul 25, 2008, 09:13am
jdmara jdmara is offline
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Join Date: Jan 2005
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If the fielder has had an opportunity to make a play on the ball and elected not to play the ball, runner interference cannot occur unless the interference is intentional.

This is a situation in one of the case books I have (OBR). In the OP it is not clear whether F3 was "trailing/following" the ball down the line, however. If F3 is moving with the ball down the line (presumably waiting for it to go foul), he has already had an opportunity to field the ball. If contact then occurs, I've got nothing unless something intentional/malicious happens.

Just my two cents. I'll try to find where I saw that.

-Josh
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