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Originally Posted by FullCount
From Scenario 2 in the OP:
"Prior to next pitch, Defense appeals R1 not tagging up at 3B, and ump gives an out to end the inning. Does the score of the trailing R2 stand? Should R1 have been awarded 3B having not "re-possessed" 1B prior to the dead ball?"
Was the second reference to R1, in the last sentence, in error?
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Yes, imho. Not only that, the previous two sentences read:
Quote:
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Originally Posted by whiskers_ump
2. R1 at 3B, R2 at 2B, R3 at 1B, 1 out. [...] F4 [...] overthrows F3 and ball enters dugout.
R3 scores, followed by R2 on the two base advance. R1 is awarded 3B.
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Quote:
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Originally Posted by FullCount
Maybe there's a source of confusion here.
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I agree. I doubt R3 is passing runners, but maybe that's the OP's scenario. OTOH, it's easy to designate runners by her base at TOP. This
whiskers_ump has done, apparently unintentionally. That's the point: it's easy to designate runners by the base at TOP. So easy that mistakes happen.
Before I get flamed, let me say I fully understand the leading runner notation.
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Originally Posted by IRISHMAFIA
(paraphrasing) go back to baseball
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Ouch. Flamed anyway. $Diety forbid that softball have
anything to do with baseball.
Respectfully,
-CB