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Originally Posted by Crabby_Bob
So far so good.
R3 has passed R2 and R1. R2 has passed R1. R1 is awarded the base she was entitled to at TOP. Huh?
R1 runs the bases in reverse order? taking care not to pass trailing runners...
I'm sure I'm whistling in the face of a tornado when I say I prefer the notation R# where # is the base the runner legally possesses at the time of the pitch. I presume whiskers_ump is unintentionally mixing the two conventions. This confusion arises from the requirement to specify the runner's base when using R1 to designate the lead runner. R1's location is different for each situation. I believe it's cleaner and clearer in the R# notation. First and second is R1, R2 or R2, R1, it doesn't matter. First and third is R1, R3. Second and third is R2, R3. whiskers_ump's second situation is...
2. R1 at 1B, R2 at 2B, R3 at 3B, [or R1,2,3], [or bases loaded], 1 out. B1 hits line drive caught by F4. R1 and R3 freeze, R2 retreats to her base to tag. F4 throws [to 1B] for the force[sic] of R1, but overthrows F3 and ball enters dugout. R3 scores, followed by R2 on the two base advance. R1 is awarded 3B. Prior to next pitch, Defense appeals R3 not tagging up [at 3B], and ump gives an out to end the inning. Does the score of the trailing R2 stand? Should R1 have been awarded 3B having not "re-possessed" 1B prior to the dead ball?
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Which runner landed on base first? R1, second R2, third R3, so they would
be---R1 at 3B, R2 at 2B and R3 at 1B. B1 you referred to, has already been
to the plate as have B2, B3, B4, now the batter would be B5. Simple to
follow.