View Single Post
  #2 (permalink)  
Old Wed Jul 16, 2008, 11:56am
Ch1town
Guest
 
Posts: n/a
Quote:
Originally Posted by turnbucklejones
So hypothetically, what would happen if Shaq inbounded the ball and went up the court never stepping inbounds during the possession and the Spurs attempted to foul him. Is that a foul, even though he's not on the playing surface? Is the playing surface/court considered between the lines or the area surrounding the "court?" Is it an intentional foul because he's not on the playing surface? Or is it just a regular foul, assuming it isn't malicious, like we're used to seeing? Or something else?
Thanks for your help.
I'm not sure about the NBA ruleset, but Fed goes like this:

A player who is inbounding the ball and does not immediately return to the court is supposed to be assessed a technical foul per 10-3-3 for delay in returning to the court.
Reply With Quote