Quote:
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Originally Posted by cshs81
Reds/Nationals - R1, one out. Batter tries to bunt for hit. Ball dies right in front of plate. F2 picks it up and as he's throwing to 2nd base for the force , the first base umpire is yelling "Foul ball - the ball hit the batter while he was in the box."
Meanwhile, the defense completes the DP on the BR.
BR clearly slows down and nearly stops about 45 feet from first base as he sees the first base umpire signaling foul ball.
Defense manager comes out to argue saying it did not hit him. (replays back him up).
After the umpires conference, they call R1 out on the force BUT they award the batter first base.
Any ideas how they would have arrived at that?
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Just common sense is all I can think of.
The U1 calling foul caused the runner to slow down, thus it only makes sense to award him first base due to the umpires mistake.
Maybe we need a new rule with all of the plays being overturned in MLB, call it "umpire obstruction" or something ...
thanks
David